Re: anyelement -> anyrange

From: "David G(dot) Johnston" <david(dot)g(dot)johnston(at)gmail(dot)com>
To: Jim Nasby <Jim(dot)Nasby(at)bluetreble(dot)com>
Cc: Tom Lane <tgl(at)sss(dot)pgh(dot)pa(dot)us>, Pg Hackers <pgsql-hackers(at)postgresql(dot)org>, Jeff Davis <pgsql(at)j-davis(dot)com>
Subject: Re: anyelement -> anyrange
Date: 2016-08-16 23:56:47
Message-ID: CAKFQuwYWN3M7fv5ukV_LidpAqM6EgO9gaSVsvdmRsov3-Tpfkw@mail.gmail.com
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On Tue, Aug 16, 2016 at 7:47 PM, Jim Nasby <Jim(dot)Nasby(at)bluetreble(dot)com> wrote:

> On 8/15/16 10:12 PM, Tom Lane wrote:
>
>> Jim Nasby <Jim(dot)Nasby(at)BlueTreble(dot)com> writes:
>>
>>> Any reason why we can create a function that accepts anyelement and
>>> returns anyarray, but can't do the same with anyrange?
>>>
>>
>> Because there can be more than one range type over the same element
>> type, so we couldn't deduce which one should be used for anyrange.
>>
>> The other direction (inferring anyelement from anyrange) does work.
>>
>
> Is there an actual use case for that? I'm not seeing what it would be...

​https://www.postgresql.org/docs/9.5/static/functions-range.html

lower() and upper() both use it.

David J.

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