From: | "David G(dot) Johnston" <david(dot)g(dot)johnston(at)gmail(dot)com> |
---|---|
To: | Melanie Plageman <melanieplageman(at)gmail(dot)com> |
Cc: | Heikki Linnakangas <hlinnaka(at)iki(dot)fi>, PostgreSQL Hackers <pgsql-hackers(at)lists(dot)postgresql(dot)org> |
Subject: | Re: Bug in either collation docs or code |
Date: | 2018-06-08 00:15:21 |
Message-ID: | CAKFQuwYVLdBX5NE0L5rER=rFXNy1rO-_1oBeYPcj84ujCxSiWQ@mail.gmail.com |
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Lists: | pgsql-hackers |
On Thu, Jun 7, 2018 at 4:37 PM, Melanie Plageman <melanieplageman(at)gmail(dot)com>
wrote:
> CREATE TABLE test1 (
> a text COLLATE "de_DE",
> b text COLLATE "es_ES",
> ...
> );
>
> My thought was to add the following example:
>
> SELECT a < (select 'foo' COLLATE "fr_FR") FROM test1;
>
> I thought this would error out because the subquery's result is considered
> implicit and, in this case, it seems you now have conflicting implicit
> collations. However, this does not produce an error. What am I missing?
>
Data, apparently...I got the same non-error result before inserting a
record into test1 then I got the expected error.
Its the function/operator the fails when faced with invalid input, not the
planner, so the error requires data to provoke.
David J.
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