From: | Ali Akbar <the(dot)apaan(at)gmail(dot)com> |
---|---|
To: | "pgsql-hackers(at)postgresql(dot)org" <pgsql-hackers(at)postgresql(dot)org> |
Subject: | Function array_agg(array) |
Date: | 2014-10-11 14:57:38 |
Message-ID: | CACQjQLo-bM30ydc+RmtTvYSdDUbRb3Ab+c6rRV_8iOiwbgXBGA@mail.gmail.com |
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Lists: | pgsql-hackers |
Greetings,
While looking for easier items in PostgreSQL Wiki's Todo List (this will be
my 3rd patch), i found this TODO:
Add a built-in array_agg(anyarray) or similar, that can aggregate
> 1-dimensional arrays into a 2-dimensional array.
>
I've stumbled by this lack of array_agg(anyarray) sometimes ago in my work,
so i decided to explore this.
Currently, if we try array_agg(anyarray), PostgreSQL behaves like this:
# select array_agg('{1,2}'::int[]);
ERROR: could not find array type for data type integer[]
Reading implementation of array_agg, it looks like the array_agg function
is generic, and can process any input. The error comes from PostgreSQL not
finding array type for int[] (_int4 in pg_proc).
In PostgreSQL, any array is multidimensional, array type for any array is
the same:
- the type of {1,2} is int[]
- {{1,2}, {3,4}} is int[]
- {{{1},{2}, {3} ,{4}}} is still int[]
So, can't we just set the typarray of array types to its self oid? (patch
attached). So far:
- the array_agg is working and returning correct types:
backend> select array_agg('{1,2}'::int[]);
1: array_agg (typeid = 1007, len = -1, typmod = -1, byval = f)
----
1: array_agg = "{"{1,2}"}" (typeid = 1007, len = -1, typmod = -1,
byval = f)
----
select array_agg('{''a'',''b''}'::varchar[]);
1: array_agg (typeid = 1015, len = -1, typmod = -1, byval = f)
----
1: array_agg = "{"{'a','b'}"}" (typeid = 1015, len = -1, typmod =
-1, byval = f)
----
- Regression tests passed except for the pg_type sanity check while
checking typelem relation with typarray:
SELECT p1.oid, p1.typname as basetype, p2.typname as arraytype,
p2.typelem, p2.typlen
FROM pg_type p1 LEFT JOIN pg_type p2 ON (p1.typarray = p2.oid)
WHERE p1.typarray <> 0 AND
(p2.oid IS NULL OR p2.typelem <> p1.oid OR p2.typlen <> -1);
! oid | basetype | arraytype | typelem | typlen
! ------+----------------+----------------+---------+--------
! 143 | _xml | _xml | 142 | -1
! 199 | _json | _json | 114 | -1
! 629 | _line | _line | 628 | -1
! 719 | _circle | _circle | 718 | -1
... (cut)
Aside from the sanity check complaints, I don't see any problems in the
resulting array operations.
So, back to the question: Can't we just set the typarray of array types to
its self oid?
Regards,
--
Ali Akbar
Attachment | Content-Type | Size |
---|---|---|
array_agg_anyarray-1.patch | text/x-diff | 31.9 KB |
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