From: | Amit Kapila <amit(dot)kapila16(at)gmail(dot)com> |
---|---|
To: | Ajin Cherian <itsajin(at)gmail(dot)com> |
Cc: | Masahiko Sawada <sawada(dot)mshk(at)gmail(dot)com>, Peter Smith <smithpb2250(at)gmail(dot)com>, PostgreSQL Hackers <pgsql-hackers(at)postgresql(dot)org> |
Subject: | Re: [HACKERS] logical decoding of two-phase transactions |
Date: | 2020-11-17 12:06:24 |
Message-ID: | CAA4eK1+hS7wT067xGvfu9o6hGc-t-R1T=FBWpx8CJnr209E_Rw@mail.gmail.com |
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Lists: | pgsql-hackers |
On Tue, Nov 17, 2020 at 5:02 PM Ajin Cherian <itsajin(at)gmail(dot)com> wrote:
>
> On Tue, Nov 17, 2020 at 10:14 PM Amit Kapila <amit(dot)kapila16(at)gmail(dot)com> wrote:
>
> >
> > Doesn't this happen only if you set replication origins? Because
> > otherwise both PrepareTransaction() and
> > RecordTransactionCommitPrepared() used the current timestamp.
> >
>
> I was also checking this, even if you set replicating origins, the
> preparedTransaction will reflect the local prepare time in
> pg_prepared_xacts. pg_prepared_xacts fetches this information
> from GlobalTransaction data which does not store the origin_timestamp;
> it only stores the prepared_at which is the local timestamp.
>
Sure, but my question was does this difference in behavior happens
without replication origins in any way? The reason is that if it
occurs only with replication origins, I don't think we need to bother
about the same because that feature is not properly implemented and
not used as-is. See the discussion [1] [2]. OTOH, if this behavior can
happen without replication origins then we might want to consider
changing it.
[1] - https://www.postgresql.org/message-id/064fab0c-915e-aede-c02e-bd4ec1f59732%402ndquadrant.com
[2] - https://www.postgresql.org/message-id/188d15be-8699-c045-486a-f0439c9c2b7d%402ndquadrant.com
--
With Regards,
Amit Kapila.
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