Re: Should we throw error when converting a nonexistent/ambiguous timestamp?

From: Tom Lane <tgl(at)sss(dot)pgh(dot)pa(dot)us>
To: Robert Haas <robertmhaas(at)gmail(dot)com>
Cc: pgsql-hackers(at)postgresql(dot)org
Subject: Re: Should we throw error when converting a nonexistent/ambiguous timestamp?
Date: 2010-03-16 01:37:26
Message-ID: 27506.1268703446@sss.pgh.pa.us
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Robert Haas <robertmhaas(at)gmail(dot)com> writes:
> On Mon, Mar 15, 2010 at 9:12 PM, Tom Lane <tgl(at)sss(dot)pgh(dot)pa(dot)us> wrote:
>> The current code behavior seems to me to be on par with, for example,
>> trying to intuit MM-DD versus DD-MM field orders. We used to try to
>> do that, too, and gave it up as a bad idea.

> I suppose it's topologically equivalent, but to me that is an order of
> magnitude crazier than this case.

> Of course I may be in the minority... but you did ask...

Well, the purpose of asking is to see whether there's a consensus for
doing something. If not, fine, it's one less thing to worry about...

regards, tom lane

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