| From: | Bruce Momjian <pgman(at)candle(dot)pha(dot)pa(dot)us> |
|---|---|
| To: | Peter Eisentraut <peter_e(at)gmx(dot)net> |
| Cc: | Tom Lane <tgl(at)sss(dot)pgh(dot)pa(dot)us>, "scott(dot)marlowe" <scott(dot)marlowe(at)ihs(dot)com>, Bruno Wolff III <bruno(at)wolff(dot)to>, PostgreSQL Development <pgsql-hackers(at)postgresql(dot)org> |
| Subject: | Re: SET CONSTRAINTS not schema-aware |
| Date: | 2003-06-02 17:26:17 |
| Message-ID: | 200306021726.h52HQHa16952@candle.pha.pa.us |
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| Thread: | |
| Lists: | pgsql-hackers |
OK, added to TODO:
Allow SET CONSTRAINTS to be qualified by schema/table
Peter, I assume SET CONSTRAINTS can't control a domain's constraints ---
it isn't actually a data object in the transaction. Am I right?
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Peter Eisentraut wrote:
> Tom Lane writes:
>
> > Right. In SQL92 constraint names have to be unique within the table's
> > schema. Postgres allows two different tables to have similarly-named
> > constraints, and that difference is the root of the issue.
>
> But that should not prevent us from assigning an explicit schema to each
> constraint, as we in fact currently do. This issue is a bit more tricky
> than it seems. For example, constraints may also belong to a domain, so
> even if we allowed SET CONSTRAINTS a.b.c it is still not clear that "b" is
> a table.
>
> --
> Peter Eisentraut peter_e(at)gmx(dot)net
>
>
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--
Bruce Momjian | http://candle.pha.pa.us
pgman(at)candle(dot)pha(dot)pa(dot)us | (610) 359-1001
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