Re: SET CONSTRAINTS not schema-aware

From: Bruce Momjian <pgman(at)candle(dot)pha(dot)pa(dot)us>
To: Peter Eisentraut <peter_e(at)gmx(dot)net>
Cc: Tom Lane <tgl(at)sss(dot)pgh(dot)pa(dot)us>, "scott(dot)marlowe" <scott(dot)marlowe(at)ihs(dot)com>, Bruno Wolff III <bruno(at)wolff(dot)to>, PostgreSQL Development <pgsql-hackers(at)postgresql(dot)org>
Subject: Re: SET CONSTRAINTS not schema-aware
Date: 2003-06-02 17:26:17
Message-ID: 200306021726.h52HQHa16952@candle.pha.pa.us
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OK, added to TODO:

Allow SET CONSTRAINTS to be qualified by schema/table

Peter, I assume SET CONSTRAINTS can't control a domain's constraints ---
it isn't actually a data object in the transaction. Am I right?

---------------------------------------------------------------------------

Peter Eisentraut wrote:
> Tom Lane writes:
>
> > Right. In SQL92 constraint names have to be unique within the table's
> > schema. Postgres allows two different tables to have similarly-named
> > constraints, and that difference is the root of the issue.
>
> But that should not prevent us from assigning an explicit schema to each
> constraint, as we in fact currently do. This issue is a bit more tricky
> than it seems. For example, constraints may also belong to a domain, so
> even if we allowed SET CONSTRAINTS a.b.c it is still not clear that "b" is
> a table.
>
> --
> Peter Eisentraut peter_e(at)gmx(dot)net
>
>
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