| From: | Jeff Davis <pgsql(at)j-davis(dot)com> |
|---|---|
| To: | Jeremy Schneider <schneider(at)ardentperf(dot)com>, Laurenz Albe <laurenz(dot)albe(at)cybertec(dot)at> |
| Cc: | Daniel Verite <daniel(at)manitou-mail(dot)org>, Noah Misch <noah(at)leadboat(dot)com>, Peter Eisentraut <peter(at)eisentraut(dot)org>, Robert Haas <robertmhaas(at)gmail(dot)com>, Tom Lane <tgl(at)sss(dot)pgh(dot)pa(dot)us>, pgsql-hackers(at)postgresql(dot)org |
| Subject: | Re: [18] Policy on IMMUTABLE functions and Unicode updates |
| Date: | 2024-07-24 17:35:38 |
| Message-ID: | 1b5ec4c8e43376346cde1ecc18516a0bbe92140a.camel@j-davis.com |
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| Lists: | pgsql-hackers |
On Tue, 2024-07-23 at 06:31 -0600, Jeremy Schneider wrote:
> Other RDBMS are very careful not to corrupt databases, afaik
> including function based indexes, by changing Unicode. I’m not aware
> of any other RDBMS that updates Unicode versions in place; instead
> they support multiple Unicode versions and do not drop the old ones.
I'm curious about the details of what other RDBMSs do.
Let's simplify and say that there's one database-wide collation at
version 1, and the application doesn't use any COLLATE clause or other
specifications for queries or DDL.
Then, version 2 of that collation becomes available. When a query comes
into the database, which version of the collation does it use, 1 or 2?
If it uses the latest available (version 2), then all the old indexes
are effectively useless.
So I suppose there's some kind of migration process where you
rebuild/fix objects to use the new collation, and when that's done then
you change the default so that queries use version 2. How does all that
work?
Regards,
Jeff Davis
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