Mike Nolan <nolan(at)gw(dot)tssi(dot)com> writes:
> I have a before insert trigger that updates a value in another table.
> It appears that I cannot depend upon that update having taken place
> in an after insert trigger on the first table. (The one with the insert.)
This seems a tad improbable, not to say impossible. Concrete example,
please?
regards, tom lane