From: | "Ted Byers" <r(dot)ted(dot)byers(at)rogers(dot)com> |
---|---|
To: | "Frank L(dot) Parks" <fparks(at)ezbizpartner(dot)com>, <pgsql-general(at)postgresql(dot)org> |
Subject: | Re: [Bulk] Re: Final stored procedure question, for now anyway |
Date: | 2005-12-29 01:28:39 |
Message-ID: | 03c101c60c17$32da5b70$6401a8c0@RnDworkstation |
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Thread: | |
Lists: | pgsql-general |
----- Original Message -----
From: "Frank L. Parks" <fparks(at)ezbizpartner(dot)com>
To: <pgsql-general(at)postgresql(dot)org>
Sent: Wednesday, December 28, 2005 7:27 PM
Subject: [Bulk] Re: [GENERAL] Final stored procedure question, for now
anyway
> Do you refresh you database after you add the function? It will not show
> up until after you refresh.
>
I didn't realise that refreshing the display in pgAdmin would not be enough.
I did that several times with no luck. I then closed the connection to the
database and then connected again, and voila! The functions appear,
entirely in lower case, in the public schema in my EntityDatabase. This
database has two schemas, "public", which was there the moment I created the
database, and "People" which I created.
Now, this begs more questions. My function references tables in the
"People" schema. They do not qualify the references to these tables. In my
view, the function properly belongs to the people schema.
1) Can the function be simply moved from the public schema to the people
schema, or do I need to delete the function and recreate it within the
people schema? If the latter is true, how would I specify, within the SQL,
that the function is to be added to the People schema instead of public?
2) Do I need to qualify my references to my tables in the function to
identify the schema in which the tables exist, or will Postgres find the
right tables with the function in its present form? If I have to further
qualify the table references, what is the correct qualification of the table
references within the SQL in the function definition?
Thanks,
Ted
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